Froggy Jumps: Exam 3 BIO 274


Froggy Jumps Exam 3 BIO 274Versión en línea Chapters 8-15 por amber smith 1 Which type of cells more commonly have plasmids? a Prokaryotes b Eukaryotes c Archea 2 What is a plasmid? a plasma that can create new genes b chromosomes that have been separated into pieces c many free-floating, non-essential genes 3 What direction is DNA made in a 3' to 5' b 5' to 3' c 2' to 5' 4 Which is the direct order of Central Dogma? a Translation-Transcription b Transcription-protein synthesis c Transcription-Translation 5 What is a semi-conservative DNA? a one old strand and one new strand b one liberal strand and one conservative strand c two strands twisting the same way 6 What is the purpose of DNA gyrase? a rearrange nucleotides for base pairing b assigning complimentary base pairs to nucleotides c unwind the supercoil in bacteria 7 Which enzyme unzips the DNA? a Helicase b DNA Polymerase c DNA Ligase 8 What is the purpose of DNA polymerase in replication? a keeps two strands separate b fills in gaps during replication c synthesizes new strand 9 Which enzyme keeps strands separate while pairing nucleotides? a RNA polymerase b single strand binding proteins c DNA gyrase 10 Summarize Transcription: a RNA polymerase unwinds DNA, synthesizes new strand, RNA leaves DNA b RNA gyrase destroys DNA bonds, collects nucleotides, rebuilds as a RNA strand c Helicase creates gaps so that RNA polymerase can enter and read DNA 11 Which isn't a part of DNA replication? a RNA polymerase creates new strand b DNA polymerase binds to end of old strand & synthesizes new c Helicase separates two strands 12 Which IS NOT an enzyme in transcription? a terminator b RNA polymerase c ribosome 13 Name the three types of RNA a kRNA, tRNA, aRNA b mRNA, tRNA, rRNA c rRNA, qRNA, oRNA 14 Describe Translation: a tRNA enters A site, ribosome reads codons and makes amino acids b mRNA heats codons to create new proteins c proteins uptake nucleotides and turn them into ammonia acids 15 What are the parts of a ribosome in the correct order? a P site, A site, E site b A site, E site, P site c A site, P site, E site 16 How does a whole RNA strand become an amino acid chain? a ribosome shifts down the line and amino acids exit through the E site b RNA strand shrinks prior to entering the ribosome c multiple ribosomes attach to the RNA strand to make amino acids all at once 17 What is the distinguishing trait of mRNA? a forms the ribosome b carries amino acid to ribosome c its a temporary copy of DNA 18 What is important about tRNA? a carries amino acid to ribosome b occurs during transcription c forms the ribosome 19 What does rRNA do? a fills in blanks in RNA strand b forms the ribosome c "unzips" DNA strands 20 What is an inducible operon? a operon that is normally off; but is turned ON by substrate b operon that is normally on; turned OFF by substrate c Trp operon 21 Summarize a lac operon: a Repressor attaches to O region to make mRNA b Repressor is naturally bound to O region, lactose comes and release repressor, mRNA is made c DNA is constantly being made until repressor attaches to O region 22 Summarize a tryptophan operon: a DNA polymerase blocks tryptophan from being made b tryptophan codes for RNA polymerase to make new proteins c RNA polymerase transcribes for amino acids, tryptophan causes repressor to block polymerase 23 What causes DNA mutations a errors in DNA replication b individual is born with mutated genome c DNA is exposed to heat and denatures 24 Which is NOT a type of mutation? a reverse b point c frameshift 25 What happens in a missense mutation? a one base is changed- STOP codon is formed b one base is changed- allow some amino acid to be placed c one base is changed-one amino acid is changed 26 How do frameshift mutations work? a 1 or more base is removed/added-shifts the codon groups b reading begins at the opposite end and reads codons backwards c bases are present but skipped during reading 27 What is transduction? a bacterial cell undergoes a change in shape & function b virus enters cell and attacks cell components; cell dies c bacteriophage infects bacterial cell & replicates into many virus bodies 28 What is conjugation? a two bacterial cells merge to become on cell b two bacterial cells join via pilus to transfer DNA c a bacterial cell splits into two daughter cells 29 Define biotechnology: a use of microbes, cells, or cell components to make products b adding artificial cell components to make cells longer lasting c the adaptation of cells to better fit their environment 30 Recombinant DNA: a mixing two parental genomes to result in a new daughter genome b self destruction of DNA to recreate new genome c inserting gene of interest into genome of cell 31 Summarize recombinant DNA a during replication, DNA saves an open space to add new bases b desired DNA is extracted from a plasmid and added to genome c DNA polymerase waits for DNA to decide which new genes will be added 32 What is a goal of Recombinant DNA? a to add new, desirable DNA into bacteria & plants to make products b to make new amino acids without causing a DNA mutation c recombinant DNA isn't real????? 33 What is gel electrophoresis? a melting DNA to dissect its contents b giving DNA an electrical charge to ionize different fragments c separating DNA by size to isolate fragments 34 Summarize gel electrophoresis: a DNA attracted to positive charge of the machine; larger fragments move slower than smaller ones b the negatively charged end of the machine pulls fragments based on their size c DNA is poured into the machine and disperses based off fragment size 35 How is desired DNA obtained from eukaryotic cells? a segment recognizes that it is needed and naturally falls out of genome b genome is naturally separated into segments that can be taken out at any time c restriction enzymes cut segment out of DNA 36 Summarize the process of PCR: a DNA is incubated t one denatured; primers and taq polymerase added; incubate & replicate new strands b DNA is frozen to preserve it for later c Heat melts the DNA so it can be spread out into new genomes 37 How do forensic scientists use DNA fingerprinting? a fingerprint samples are taken and are analyzed to see what matches best b DNA fingerprinting is unreliable therefore it is no longer commonly used c fragments align with the sample to compare DNA 38 What is southern blotting? a DNA cut up by enzyme; sorted by size(GE); transferred to fiber; desired gene is hybridized by probe b only performed in southern states; DNA is replicated and scanned for gene of interest c this is a made up term 39 What's the difference between southern blotting and northern blotting a the equator, duh. b northern uses mRNA separation c northern uses protein separation 40 What's the difference between western and souther blotting a southern is used to view active products made b western can only be performed in the Wild West- yeehaw! c western separated proteins by 3-D structure 41 What is microbiota & why is it important? a pathogenic barerica in the body that causes disease b community of bacteria, viruses, protists, and fungi on the human body that strengthens immune system c bacteria that live on/in the body that help clean the body 42 Koch's Postulate is: a the idea that 1 organism causes 1 disease b for every 1 disease causing organism; there is 1 organism that can cure the disease c a community of all the organisms that can cause 1 disease 43 summarize Koch's Postulate: a take multiple samples of different pathogens & see which one is the MOST pathogenic b sample dead organ.;culture sample;introduce microbe to new organ.; take a new sample&compare c introduce pathogenic organism to healthy organism & see how well it infects 44 what is the difference between signs & symptoms? a signs: objective, measurable characteristics symptoms: subjective, non-measurable characteristics b signs: subjective, non-measurable characteristics symptoms: objective, measurable characteristics c signs: subjective, measurable characteristics symptoms: objective, non-measurable characteristics 45 What does is mean to be communicable? a easily spread b only spread through environment c transferred from one host to another 46 What types of disease are only spread through environment, not host to host? a Noncommunicable b Contagious c Communicable 47 Incidence is defined as: a # of ppl w/disease within a time period b # of people who develop the disease within a time period c # of people who have died from a disease in a time period 48 What does it mean is a disease is sporadic? a constantly present b worldwide spread c occurs occasionally 49 Endemic means: a many people get sick in a short amt. of time b the disease is constantly present c there is a worldwide spread of disease 50 What is a latent disease? a remains inactive, produces symptoms later b rapid development & lasts a short time c develops slowly over time 51 What is a systemic infection? a only one system affects b affects multiple body groups/systems c infection of blood 52 focal infection: a only one body group affected b keeps spreading until every body system is affected c starts in one body system, the moves to a new confined one 53 Whats the difference between primary and secondary infections? a secondary infection is the second stage of a chronic disease b secondary infection occurs after the initial infection has healed c secondary infection is caused by 2nd organism after initial rxn 54 What are predisposing factors? a make body more susceptible to disease b make organism more pathogenic c makes organism less susceptible to disease 55 What is the correct order of disease stages? a Convalescence, Illness, Prodromal, Decline, Incubation b Incubation, Convalescence, Prodromal, Illness, Decline c Incubation, Prodromal, Illness, Decline, Convalescence 56 What is zoonosis? a transfer of disease from animal to human b transfer of disease from human to animal c when the disease is caused by animals so it is given a name related to animals 57 How are humans a reservoir of infection? a cooking with food/water contamination b latent patients, exposure to sick ppl, carriers c droplet exposure, direct contact, fecal-oral contact 58 Which of the following is NOT a reservoir for infection? a Animals b Nature elements c Non-living 59 What is a vector? a a carrier of a disease causing agent b the orange guy from despicable me c specifically an animal that has a disease 60 What is the difference between Mechanical transmission and Biological transmission? a Mechan: being biten by something that may have been contaminated Bio: transferred by vector itself b Mechan: transferred by bite Bio: coming contact with something that was contaminated by vector c Mechan: coming in contact with something that was contaminated by vector Bio: transferred by bite 61 What is a nosocomial infection? a Infections that primarily attack the nasal region b Healthcare Associated Infections c Infections that occur from poor hygiene 62 What could be a contributor to nosocomial infections? a direct staff-patient contact with microbe presence b water contaminated with disease c mother to fetus transmission 63 What is a portal of entry? a the list of ways disinfections enter the pathogenic cell b black holes in space c how microbes enter the body 64 Describe ID50: a how many cells it take for 50% of exposed individuals to become infected b how many individuals need to be tested before a 50% confidence that the pathogen was identified c how many people need to list symptoms that are at least at 50% match to a disease 65 Describe LD50: a how lethal a drug is to humans b amt of dose that is needed to cause lethality c amt of dose that reaches 50% of cells 66 What is a receptor? a sugar on host cell that can vary in different cells of the same host b protein that prevents phagocytosis c acid that prevents digestion 67 M protein is: a heat and acid resistant b desiccation resistant c digestion resistant 68 How do microbes attach to host cell? a using entry portals b using adhesions c using exit portals 69 What is Antigenic Variation? a breaking down collagen to block connective tissue from being made b breaking up blood clots c changing outside to hide from immune system 70 Why do microbes steal nutrients from host cell? a iron is required for bacterial growth b bacteria get hungry :( c the nutrients aren't "stolen" since the bacteria is now part of the host 71 How do endotoxins work? a part of pathogenic cell breaks off and codes for cell signals to cause symptoms b pathogenic cell excretes toxin to kill host cell and stop metabolic rxns c host cell engulfs pathogenic cell; pathogenic cell tells host self to self destruct 72 Summarize AB toxins: a exotoxin enters host cell; A alters function of cell; B gets released (protein synthesis stopped) b B alters function of cell; A is released c A and B work together to self destruct cell once engulfed by host 73 What are cytopathic effects a visible results of bacterial infection b long term effects after a viral infection c visible results of viral infection 74 Why do cells produce interferons? a to let other cells know that infection is present b to change shape to hide from pathogenic cells c to activate oncogenes 75 What is a syncytium? a when infected cells fuse and become multinucleate b the parts of a virus that can be detected on a slide via stain c signals that cells give off to notify other cells that infection is present 76 What happens during contact inhibition? a virus can no longer replicate b normal cells stop growing when they contact another cell c bacterial infection dies off

1

Which type of cells more commonly have plasmids?

a

Prokaryotes

b

Eukaryotes

c

Archea

2

What is a plasmid?

a

plasma that can create new genes

b

chromosomes that have been separated into pieces

c

many free-floating, non-essential genes

3

What direction is DNA made in

a

3' to 5'

b

5' to 3'

c

2' to 5'

4

Which is the direct order of Central Dogma?

a

Translation-Transcription

b

Transcription-protein synthesis

c

Transcription-Translation

5

What is a semi-conservative DNA?

a

one old strand and one new strand

b

one liberal strand and one conservative strand

c

two strands twisting the same way

6

What is the purpose of DNA gyrase?

a

rearrange nucleotides for base pairing

b

assigning complimentary base pairs to nucleotides

c

unwind the supercoil in bacteria

7

Which enzyme unzips the DNA?

a

Helicase

b

DNA Polymerase

c

DNA Ligase

8

What is the purpose of DNA polymerase in replication?

a

keeps two strands separate

b

fills in gaps during replication

c

synthesizes new strand

9

Which enzyme keeps strands separate while pairing nucleotides?

a

RNA polymerase

b

single strand binding proteins

c

DNA gyrase

10

Summarize Transcription:

a

RNA polymerase unwinds DNA, synthesizes new strand, RNA leaves DNA

b

RNA gyrase destroys DNA bonds, collects nucleotides, rebuilds as a RNA strand

c

Helicase creates gaps so that RNA polymerase can enter and read DNA

11

Which isn't a part of DNA replication?

a

RNA polymerase creates new strand

b

DNA polymerase binds to end of old strand & synthesizes new

c

Helicase separates two strands

12

Which IS NOT an enzyme in transcription?

a

terminator

b

RNA polymerase

c

ribosome

13

Name the three types of RNA

a

kRNA, tRNA, aRNA

b

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

c

rRNA, qRNA, oRNA

14

Describe Translation:

a

tRNA enters A site, ribosome reads codons and makes amino acids

b

mRNA heats codons to create new proteins

c

proteins uptake nucleotides and turn them into ammonia acids

15

What are the parts of a ribosome in the correct order?

a

P site, A site, E site

b

A site, E site, P site

c

A site, P site, E site

16

How does a whole RNA strand become an amino acid chain?

a

ribosome shifts down the line and amino acids exit through the E site

b

RNA strand shrinks prior to entering the ribosome

c

multiple ribosomes attach to the RNA strand to make amino acids all at once

17

What is the distinguishing trait of mRNA?

a

forms the ribosome

b

carries amino acid to ribosome

c

its a temporary copy of DNA

18

What is important about tRNA?

a

carries amino acid to ribosome

b

occurs during transcription

c

forms the ribosome

19

What does rRNA do?

a

fills in blanks in RNA strand

b

forms the ribosome

c

"unzips" DNA strands

20

What is an inducible operon?

a

operon that is normally off; but is turned ON by substrate

b

operon that is normally on; turned OFF by substrate

c

Trp operon

21

Summarize a lac operon:

a

Repressor attaches to O region to make mRNA

b

Repressor is naturally bound to O region, lactose comes and release repressor, mRNA is made

c

DNA is constantly being made until repressor attaches to O region

22

Summarize a tryptophan operon:

a

DNA polymerase blocks tryptophan from being made

b

tryptophan codes for RNA polymerase to make new proteins

c

RNA polymerase transcribes for amino acids, tryptophan causes repressor to block polymerase

23

What causes DNA mutations

a

errors in DNA replication

b

individual is born with mutated genome

c

DNA is exposed to heat and denatures

24

Which is NOT a type of mutation?

a

reverse

b

point

c

frameshift

25

What happens in a missense mutation?

a

one base is changed- STOP codon is formed

b

one base is changed- allow some amino acid to be placed

c

one base is changed-one amino acid is changed

26

How do frameshift mutations work?

a

1 or more base is removed/added-shifts the codon groups

b

reading begins at the opposite end and reads codons backwards

c

bases are present but skipped during reading

27

What is transduction?

a

bacterial cell undergoes a change in shape & function

b

virus enters cell and attacks cell components; cell dies

c

bacteriophage infects bacterial cell & replicates into many virus bodies

28

What is conjugation?

a

two bacterial cells merge to become on cell

b

two bacterial cells join via pilus to transfer DNA

c

a bacterial cell splits into two daughter cells

29

Define biotechnology:

a

use of microbes, cells, or cell components to make products

b

adding artificial cell components to make cells longer lasting

c

the adaptation of cells to better fit their environment

30

Recombinant DNA:

a

mixing two parental genomes to result in a new daughter genome

b

self destruction of DNA to recreate new genome

c

inserting gene of interest into genome of cell

31

Summarize recombinant DNA

a

during replication, DNA saves an open space to add new bases

b

desired DNA is extracted from a plasmid and added to genome

c

DNA polymerase waits for DNA to decide which new genes will be added

32

What is a goal of Recombinant DNA?

a

to add new, desirable DNA into bacteria & plants to make products

b

to make new amino acids without causing a DNA mutation

c

recombinant DNA isn't real?????

33

What is gel electrophoresis?

a

melting DNA to dissect its contents

b

giving DNA an electrical charge to ionize different fragments

c

separating DNA by size to isolate fragments

34

Summarize gel electrophoresis:

a

DNA attracted to positive charge of the machine; larger fragments move slower than smaller ones

b

the negatively charged end of the machine pulls fragments based on their size

c

DNA is poured into the machine and disperses based off fragment size

35

How is desired DNA obtained from eukaryotic cells?

a

segment recognizes that it is needed and naturally falls out of genome

b

genome is naturally separated into segments that can be taken out at any time

c

restriction enzymes cut segment out of DNA

36

Summarize the process of PCR:

a

DNA is incubated t one denatured; primers and taq polymerase added; incubate & replicate new strands

b

DNA is frozen to preserve it for later

c

Heat melts the DNA so it can be spread out into new genomes

37

How do forensic scientists use DNA fingerprinting?

a

fingerprint samples are taken and are analyzed to see what matches best

b

DNA fingerprinting is unreliable therefore it is no longer commonly used

c

fragments align with the sample to compare DNA

38

What is southern blotting?

a

DNA cut up by enzyme; sorted by size(GE); transferred to fiber; desired gene is hybridized by probe

b

only performed in southern states; DNA is replicated and scanned for gene of interest

c

this is a made up term

39

What's the difference between southern blotting and northern blotting

a

the equator, duh.

b

northern uses mRNA separation

c

northern uses protein separation

40

What's the difference between western and souther blotting

a

southern is used to view active products made

b

western can only be performed in the Wild West- yeehaw!

c

western separated proteins by 3-D structure

41

What is microbiota & why is it important?

a

pathogenic barerica in the body that causes disease

b

community of bacteria, viruses, protists, and fungi on the human body that strengthens immune system

c

bacteria that live on/in the body that help clean the body

42

Koch's Postulate is:

a

the idea that 1 organism causes 1 disease

b

for every 1 disease causing organism; there is 1 organism that can cure the disease

c

a community of all the organisms that can cause 1 disease

43

summarize Koch's Postulate:

a

take multiple samples of different pathogens & see which one is the MOST pathogenic

b

sample dead organ.;culture sample;introduce microbe to new organ.; take a new sample&compare

c

introduce pathogenic organism to healthy organism & see how well it infects

44

what is the difference between signs & symptoms?

a

signs: objective, measurable characteristics symptoms: subjective, non-measurable characteristics

b

signs: subjective, non-measurable characteristics symptoms: objective, measurable characteristics

c

signs: subjective, measurable characteristics symptoms: objective, non-measurable characteristics

45

What does is mean to be communicable?

a

easily spread

b

only spread through environment

c

transferred from one host to another

46

What types of disease are only spread through environment, not host to host?

a

Noncommunicable

b

Contagious

c

Communicable

47

Incidence is defined as:

a

# of ppl w/disease within a time period

b

# of people who develop the disease within a time period

c

# of people who have died from a disease in a time period

48

What does it mean is a disease is sporadic?

a

constantly present

b

worldwide spread

c

occurs occasionally

49

Endemic means:

a

many people get sick in a short amt. of time

b

the disease is constantly present

c

there is a worldwide spread of disease

50

What is a latent disease?

a

remains inactive, produces symptoms later

b

rapid development & lasts a short time

c

develops slowly over time

51

What is a systemic infection?

a

only one system affects

b

affects multiple body groups/systems

c

infection of blood

52

focal infection:

a

only one body group affected

b

keeps spreading until every body system is affected

c

starts in one body system, the moves to a new confined one

53

Whats the difference between primary and secondary infections?

a

secondary infection is the second stage of a chronic disease

b

secondary infection occurs after the initial infection has healed

c

secondary infection is caused by 2nd organism after initial rxn

54

What are predisposing factors?

a

make body more susceptible to disease

b

make organism more pathogenic

c

makes organism less susceptible to disease

55

What is the correct order of disease stages?

a

Convalescence, Illness, Prodromal, Decline, Incubation

b

Incubation, Convalescence, Prodromal, Illness, Decline

c

Incubation, Prodromal, Illness, Decline, Convalescence

56

What is zoonosis?

a

transfer of disease from animal to human

b

transfer of disease from human to animal

c

when the disease is caused by animals so it is given a name related to animals

57

How are humans a reservoir of infection?

a

cooking with food/water contamination

b

latent patients, exposure to sick ppl, carriers

c

droplet exposure, direct contact, fecal-oral contact

58

Which of the following is NOT a reservoir for infection?

a

Animals

b

Nature elements

c

Non-living

59

What is a vector?

a

a carrier of a disease causing agent

b

the orange guy from despicable me

c

specifically an animal that has a disease

60

What is the difference between Mechanical transmission and Biological transmission?

a

Mechan: being biten by something that may have been contaminated Bio: transferred by vector itself

b

Mechan: transferred by bite Bio: coming contact with something that was contaminated by vector

c

Mechan: coming in contact with something that was contaminated by vector Bio: transferred by bite

61

What is a nosocomial infection?

a

Infections that primarily attack the nasal region

b

Healthcare Associated Infections

c

Infections that occur from poor hygiene

62

What could be a contributor to nosocomial infections?

a

direct staff-patient contact with microbe presence

b

water contaminated with disease

c

mother to fetus transmission

63

What is a portal of entry?

a

the list of ways disinfections enter the pathogenic cell

b

black holes in space

c

how microbes enter the body

64

Describe ID50:

a

how many cells it take for 50% of exposed individuals to become infected

b

how many individuals need to be tested before a 50% confidence that the pathogen was identified

c

how many people need to list symptoms that are at least at 50% match to a disease

65

Describe LD50:

a

how lethal a drug is to humans

b

amt of dose that is needed to cause lethality

c

amt of dose that reaches 50% of cells

66

What is a receptor?

a

sugar on host cell that can vary in different cells of the same host

b

protein that prevents phagocytosis

c

acid that prevents digestion

67

M protein is:

a

heat and acid resistant

b

desiccation resistant

c

digestion resistant

68

How do microbes attach to host cell?

a

using entry portals

b

using adhesions

c

using exit portals

69

What is Antigenic Variation?

a

breaking down collagen to block connective tissue from being made

b

breaking up blood clots

c

changing outside to hide from immune system

70

Why do microbes steal nutrients from host cell?

a

iron is required for bacterial growth

b

bacteria get hungry :(

c

the nutrients aren't "stolen" since the bacteria is now part of the host

71

How do endotoxins work?

a

part of pathogenic cell breaks off and codes for cell signals to cause symptoms

b

pathogenic cell excretes toxin to kill host cell and stop metabolic rxns

c

host cell engulfs pathogenic cell; pathogenic cell tells host self to self destruct

72

Summarize AB toxins:

a

exotoxin enters host cell; A alters function of cell; B gets released (protein synthesis stopped)

b

B alters function of cell; A is released

c

A and B work together to self destruct cell once engulfed by host

73

What are cytopathic effects

a

visible results of bacterial infection

b

long term effects after a viral infection

c

visible results of viral infection

74

Why do cells produce interferons?

a

to let other cells know that infection is present

b

to change shape to hide from pathogenic cells

c

to activate oncogenes

75

What is a syncytium?

a

when infected cells fuse and become multinucleate

b

the parts of a virus that can be detected on a slide via stain

c

signals that cells give off to notify other cells that infection is present

76

What happens during contact inhibition?

a

virus can no longer replicate

b

normal cells stop growing when they contact another cell

c

bacterial infection dies off

Exam 3 BIO 274

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