What is the term given to the pattern of peristalsis that occurs in the large intestine only?
A.
Mass movements
B.
Haustral contractions
C.
Defaecation reflex
D.
Segmentation
2.
What is the main function of haustral contractions?
A.
Allow water absorption
B.
Remove bacteria from the small intestine
C.
Allow nutrient absorption
D.
Assist gastric emptying
E.
Initiation of defaecation reflex
3.
Which is the most important role in stomach motility?
A.
Assist gastric emptying
B.
Digest starchy foods
C.
Homogenise ingested food
D.
secrete alkaline fluid
E.
Produce the enzyme trypsin
4.
What is the primary role of the gallbladder?
A.
concentrate bile
B.
bile production
C.
Digest fats
D.
Store bile
5.
Which nervous system generally stimulates secretions in the GI tract?
A.
Parasympathetic
B.
Central
C.
Sympathetic
D.
Myenteric
E.
submucosal
6.
How many sphincters would one observe, in the human alimentary canal, between the upper oesophageal and the anal sphincters?
A.
2
B.
4
C.
3
D.
5
7.
Which type of gastrointestinal motility occurs ONLY in the small intestine?
A.
haustral contractions
B.
peristalsis
C.
mass movements
D.
migrating motility complex
E.
antiperistalsis
8.
Which anatomical structure is responsible for segmentation?
A.
muscularis externa
B.
longitudinal muscle
C.
tenae coli
D.
circular muscle
E.
oblique muscle
9.
Which type of motility allows for temporary storage in the rectum?
A.
Pendular movements
B.
Segmentation
C.
Accommodation
D.
Peristalsis
E.
haustral contractions
10.
What is the most likely range of pH values that you would observe normally in the stomach of an adult person?
A.
1.5 - 4.0
B.
6.5 - 7.5
C.
7.0 - 8.0
D.
5.0 - 7.0
11.
What do the parietal cells of the gastric glands in mammals secrete?
A.
Pepsinogen
B.
Pepsin
C.
HCL and intrinsic factor
D.
Alkaline mucous
12.
The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?
A.
Goblet and squamous epithelial cells
B.
Chief and endocrine cells
C.
Parietal and glial cells
D.
Serous and mucous cells
13.
What hormone is the major stimulus for gallbladder contraction?
A.
Secretin
B.
Gastric juice
C.
somatostatin
D.
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
E.
pancreatic juice
14.
What is the main function of segmentation in the small intestine?
A.
Absorb water
B.
mixing
C.
assist gastric emptying
D.
Propulsion
15.
Approximately what pH value would you expect the secretion in the mouth of a normal human adult likely to be?
A.
4
B.
6
C.
7
D.
5
E.
3
16.
What cell does gastrin stimulate to produce the release of histamine?
A.
Goblet cell
B.
G cell
C.
D cell
D.
ECL (enterochromaffin like) cell
E.
Parietal cell
17.
What do gastric parietal cells secrete?
A.
Gastrin
B.
Mucous
C.
Pepsinogen
D.
HCL
18.
What would be the most common cause of the condition known as GOR?
A.
Fatty food
B.
Loss of tone in the lower oesophageal sphincter
C.
Old age
D.
Spicy food
E.
Overweight
19.
What agent stimulates the secretion of mucin and bicarbonate ions that form the protective alkaline mucus layer of the gastric lumen?
A.
Prostaglandin
B.
Histamine
C.
Intrinsic factor
D.
Acetylcholine
E.
Norepinephrine
20.
Which of the following would be a resulting complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease?
A.
Impaired gastric emptying
B.
Barrett's oesophagus
C.
Hiatus hernia
D.
Gastric ulcer
E.
duodenal ulcer
21.
The so-called mucosal protection barrier is quite effective in protecting the epithelial lining of the stomach from the corrosive action of gastric acid. Which of these agents plays an important role in the formation of such mucosal protection barrier?
A.
Prostaglandin E2
B.
Gastrin
C.
Cox 2
D.
Acetylcholine
E.
Histamine
22.
Which of the following, best defines peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
A.
Duodenal ulcers caused by H pylori
B.
Gastric ulcers caused by acid
C.
Disease of the upper GI tract caused by the action of acid and pepsin
D.
Oesophagitis
E.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
23.
By definition, Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) involves which segments of the GI tract?
A.
duodenum only
B.
oesophagus, stomach and duodenum
C.
Stomach only
D.
Mouth, oesophagus and stomach
E.
Stomach, duodenum and terminal ileum
24.
Infection of which organism is a common cause of chronic gastritis?
A.
Helicobacter pylori
B.
Fungus
C.
Syphilis
D.
Hookworm
25.
Autoimmune gastritis is characterised by what factors?
A.
Has an increased risk of stomach cancer
B.
Gastric atrophy
C.
It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as Type 1 diabetes and Hashimotos thyroiditis
D.
It is an inherited condition
E.
All of the above
26.
The chronic use of NSAIDs is a common cause of chronic gastritis. How are NSAIDs contributing to the development of gastritis?
A.
NSAIDs increase the production of pepsin from the chief cells
B.
NSAIDs prevent the production of Intrinsic factor and acid by the parietal cells
C.
NSAIDs block the Cox 1 and 2 enzymes to prevent production of Prosteglandin E2
D.
NSAIDs act as antagonists for the CCKB receptor on the parietal cells
27.
What might be a resulting complication of gastritis?
A.
Pernicious anaemia
B.
Alcoholic liver disease
C.
Nausea
D.
Duodenal ulcer
E.
Vomiting
28.
Name the one most important factor protecting the stomach mucosa for helping to reduce the incidence of gastritis
A.
Compact epithelial cells
B.
Thick alkaline mucous
C.
Secretion of HCl
D.
Fast turnover of epithelial cells
29.
Which receptor normally would be targeted by drugs administered to those who suffer from motion sickness?
A.
H2
B.
H1
C.
D2
D.
CCKB
E.
5-HT3
30.
During the act of vomiting which one of the following would be occurring?
A.
Contraction of the upper oesophageal sphincter
B.
Longitudinal muscles of the stomach are contracted
C.
Relaxation of the diaphragm and abdominal wall muscles
D.
Closure of the glottis and trachea
E.
Closure of the lower oesophageal sphincter and glottis
31.
Where is the Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) located?
A.
Outside the blood-brain barrier
B.
In the vestibular nuclei
C.
In the vomiting centre
D.
Within the blood-brain barrer
32.
Over distension of which segment of the Gastrointestinal tract is the exciting factor that initiates the vomiting act?
A.
Oesophagus
B.
Duodenum
C.
Colon
D.
Ileum
E.
Stomach
33.
Which anti-emetic drug might you use to treat a patient receiving chemotherapy treatment and suffering from episodes of vomiting?
A.
H1 antagonist
B.
5-HT3 antagonist
C.
H2 antagonist
D.
CCKB antagonist
E.
M3 antagonist
34.
Which one of the following controls and coordinates motility of the relevant striated and smooth muscles that facilitates the act of vomiting?
A.
Vomiting centre
B.
Chemoreceptor trigger zone
C.
Vestibular apparatus
D.
Visceral signals
E.
Labyrinth
35.
Which secretory product is most likely to be produced in the crypts of Leiberkuhn?
A.
Mucin
B.
Acidic mucous
C.
Intestinal juice
D.
Digestive enzymes
E.
Bile
36.
Including 25-30g of non-starch polysaccharides (NSP) into your diet may help prevent:
A.
vomiting
B.
diarrhoea
C.
constipation
D.
flatus
E.
nausea
37.
What is the major stimulus for gallbladder contraction?
A.
CCK
B.
Secretin
C.
Gastric juice
D.
Pancreatic juice
E.
Mucin
38.
What do the Brunner's glands secrete?
A.
Alkaline mucous
B.
Acid mucous
C.
Digestive enzymes
D.
Lysozymes
E.
Neutral pH mucous
39.
What type of gastrointestinal motility occurs ONLY in the small intestine?
A.
migrating mobility complex
B.
peristalsis
C.
antiperistalsis
D.
haustrations
E.
mass movements
40.
What type of motility allows for temporary storage in the rectum?
A.
Accommodation
B.
Segmentation
C.
Pendular movements
D.
Haustral contractions
E.
Peristalsis
41.
Under the Bristol Stool Form Scale (BSFS) what classification would you give stools excreted by those people suffering from diarrhoea cause by Cholera?
A.
7
B.
5
C.
1
D.
3
E.
4
42.
What type of diarrhoea would those people who suffer from lactose intolerance, have after drinking a significant amount of milk?
A.
motility disturbance
B.
secretory
C.
osmotic
D.
exudative
E.
infective
43.
What combination of common kitchen ingredients might be considered the most effective as a rehydration solution to treat diarrhoea?
A.
Table salt, water and unsweetened tea
B.
Table salt and water
C.
Sugar, table salt and water
D.
Sugar and water
44.
An effective rehydration solution may contain
A.
20g of glucose and 1g of sodium chloride
B.
3.5g of glucose and 20g of sodium chloride
C.
40g of glucose and 20g of sodium chloride
D.
20g of glucose and 3.5g of sodium chloride
E.
20g of glucose and 20g of sodium chloride
45.
What might be a likely cause of chronic constipation?
A.
A chronic lack of starch in the diet
B.
A chronic lack of meat in the diet
C.
Regular consumption of fruit and vegetables
D.
A chronic lack of dietary fibre
46.
Under the Bristol Stool Form Scale (BSFS) what classification would you give stools that are considered normal?
A.
5
B.
3
C.
4
D.
7
E.
1
47.
What compound causes hepatic encephalopathy arising from portal hypertension
A.
water
B.
carbon dioxide
C.
glucose
D.
ammonia
E.
urea
48.
Hepatitis is a liver disorder primarily caused by?
A.
Bacterial infection
B.
Alcoholism
C.
Overproduction of bile
D.
Viral infection
E.
Parasitic infection
49.
Which of the following conditions would lead to jaundice?
A.
inability of the liver to conjugate bilirubin
B.
loss of blood through injury
C.
increased dietary fat consumption
D.
presence of gallstones in the gallbladder
E.
increased rate of secretion of bile by the liver
50.
Which of the following is NOT a result of long term liver damage due to alcoholism?
A.
Overproduction of bile
B.
Caput medusa
C.
Fatty liver
D.
Ascites
E.
Portal hypertension
51.
Hepatitis A is characterised by:
A.
an insidious onset
B.
a positive carrier state
C.
a faecal-oral transmission
D.
multiple re-infection
E.
an incubation period of 180 days
52.
Increased bilirubin production and impaired hepatic excretion of bilirubin can lead to:
A.
Hepatitis A
B.
Physiologic jaundice
C.
Ascites
D.
Infantile cirrhosis
E.
Biliary hypertrophy
53.
From which of the following is jaundice likely to develop?
A.
Increased bile secretion
B.
The yellow-orange colour of bilirubin
C.
Cirrhosis of the liver
D.
Normal rate of destruction of red bloodcells
E.
Metabolism of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria
54.
Cushing's triad is associated with:
A.
Tension pneumothorax
B.
Massive haemothorax
C.
Cardiac tamponade
D.
Raised intracranial pressure
55.
Identify three parameters from the list below that form Cushing's triad:
A.
Raised temperature
B.
Abnormal breathing pattern
C.
Lowered pulse pressure
D.
Normal breathing pattern
E.
Raised pulse pressure
F.
Decreased pulse
56.
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It would most likely be given for
A.
Peripheral oedema
B.
Cerebral oedema
C.
Pulmonary Oedema
57.
Normal intracranial pressure is:
A.
20 - 40mmHg
B.
15 - 20mmHg
C.
<10mmHg
D.
>40mmHg
58.
Hypertonic saline (3% saline) is another drug treatment used to manage increased ICP and has been shown to be just as effective as mannitol when treating increased ICP. How does it work?
A.
Forces potassium into the brain cells
B.
Stabilises the cell membrane and inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins
C.
Increases sodium levels to increase excitability of the cell
D.
Moves water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, reducing swelling and improving cerebral blood flow
59.
Anaemia results from a lack of?
A.
white blood cells
B.
red blood cells
C.
platelets
D.
clotting factors
60.
Symptoms of anaemia due to reduced oxygen being transported around the body can include?
A.
Fatigue, skin pallor, shortness of breath
B.
Headaches, palpitations
C.
light headedness, dizziness, tachycardia
D.
All of the above
61.
Thrombocytopenia is low level of?
A.
white blood cells
B.
red blood cells
C.
platelets
D.
clotting factors
62.
A patient with thrombocytopenia is at increased risk of?
A.
clotting
B.
infection
C.
malnutrition
D.
bleeding and bruising
63.
Haemophilia & Von Willebrand Disease are both inherited diseases that cause prolonged bleeding
A.
True
B.
False
64.
When should a patient with a haemostasis disorder seek medical attention?
