Imprimir Froggy Jumps: Exam 2 BIO 274 ()

1. What are psychophiles?

A

moderate loving (10-48ºC)

B

cold loving (-8-18ºC)

C

slight cold loving (0-31ºC)

2. Which one likes (40-71ºC)

A

thermophiles

B

mesophiles

C

hyperthermophiles

3. Psychotrophs prefer

A

0-31ºC

B

66-110ºC

C

-8-18ºC

4. prefer 0-4 pH

A

acidophiles

B

neutrophiles

C

alkaliphiles

5. alkaliphiles

A

9-11

B

6.5-7.5

C

0-4

6. what does a non-halotolerant like?

A

2%-15% salinity

B

over 50% salinity

C

0-1.5% salinity

7. which does not REQUIRE salt but will tolerate it?

A

falculative halophile

B

obligate halophile

C

non-halotolerant

8. obligate aerobes...

A

need oxygen to metabolize

B

can use oxygen but doesn't have to

C

cannot use oxygen

9. facultative aerobes...

A

absolutely cannot stand oxygen

B

can use oxygen or can switch

C

doesn't use it but can tolerate its presence

10. which ones do not use any oxygen

A

aerotolerant anaerobe

B

microaerophiles

C

obligate anaerobe

11. what does aerotolerate anaerobe mean

A

loves oxygen

B

doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it

C

can use oxygen in small amounts

12. microaerophiles

A

can either use it or switch to something else

B

doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it

C

requires oxygen in small concentrations

13. Quorum sensing is the word for...

A

sanitizing

B

when bacteria do not die from an antibiotic

C

cell communication

14. what kind of culture media has all chemicals known

A

enrichment

B

chemically defined

C

TSA media plate

15. what is a complex media

A

chemicals are unknown

B

media with added nutrients

C

selects what microbes grow

16. when nutrients are added to a media it is then called a(n)

A

social media

B

complex media

C

enrichment media

17. what is the benefit of adding nutrients to media?

A

so that the microbes don't get hungry

B

isolates organisms from a community

C

to help grow a diversity of organisms

18. Selective media...

A

selects the growth for some but not all microbes

B

selects the best surviving organism and helps it reproduce

C

grows all microbes then picks one to die off

19. Which media type causes changes to the media?

A

Diverse media

B

Differential media

C

Transitional Media

20. How does bacteria reproduce

A

sexually

B

they must be scientifically bred

C

binary fission

21. What does sterilization kill?

A

Endospores only

B

Thermophiles, harmful microbes, and pathogens

C

Endospores, thermophiles, pathogens, and microbes

22. What is the difference between sterilization and commercial sterilization?

A

they are the same

B

the only endospore c. steriliz. can kill is C. botulinum, no other thermophiles

C

c. steriliz. can kill every plus is harmful to humans

23. Which cleaning technique can only kill pathogens?

A

disinfection only

B

antisepsis only

C

disinfection and antisepsis

24. What does sanitization kill?

A

all endospores and pathogens

B

harmful microbes only

C

just endospores

25. If you used high-moist heat to kill an organism, what part(s) of the organism would you be harming?

A

DNA

B

enzymes

C

proteins (enzymes) and cell membranes

26. How does pasteurization work?

A

freeze for 1 hour at 0ºC

B

boil at 72ºC for 15 minutes

C

bake at 100ºC for 30 mins

27. What are the physical methods of microbial death?

A

High temps, low temps, desiccation, osmotic pressure, filtration and radiation

B

high temps, med. temps., atmospheric pressure, UV exposure, and filtration

C

freezing, boiling, radiation, injections, disinfection, and water submersion

28. What organism structure do phenols attack?

A

nucleic acids

B

proteins

C

lipid membranes

29. How do halogens attack microbes?

A

insert viral DNA and interrupt RNA transcription

B

alter cell membranes and effect protein synthesis

C

unravel DNA and melt membranes

30. What is alcohol good for?

A

wound cleaning

B

a good friday night

C

degerming

31. What does alcohol do to microbes?

A

Denatures proteins and disrupt cell membranes

B

disrupt viral envelopes

C

both of these are correct

32. Why is alcohol not ideal for cleaning

A

70%-95% concentrate is needed for effectiveness

B

it has a strong odor

C

the CDC has reported it is less that 5% effective

33. Define oligodynamic action

A

pairing with hydrogen to kill bacteria faster

B

this isn't a real term in the chapter

C

denature proteins by combining with sulfur groups

34. what part of the cell do heavy metals attack?

A

proteins

B

nucleic acids

C

cell membranes

35. What metal is in hand sanitizer?

A

Gold

B

Copper

C

Silver

36. Why are peroxygens not used on open wounds?

A

Oxygen mixes with the blood and causes health issues

B

catalase in the cell can break it down and alter healing process

C

trick questions; it is used to clean wounds

37. how to peroxygens attack cells?

A

denature proteins

B

inhibit protein synthesis

C

damage DNA

38. What does acid-anionic sanitizer do?

A

disrupt plasma membrane

B

break up acid/base reactions

C

causes acid/base reactions

39. Which of the following specifically affect Gram pos. bacteria?

A

hydrogen peroxide

B

hand sanitizer

C

Quaternary ammonia compounds (QUATS)

40. If antibiotics fight bacteria, why are they made from bacteria?

A

to attack other bacterial species

B

to self attack

C

it is not yet known

41. If an antibiotic can be used to treat 20 different infections, it has a(n)...

A

narrow spectrum

B

broad spectrum

C

wide spectrum

42. Which isn't one of the mechanisms of antimicrobial actions

A

Synthesis of metabolite inhibition

B

injury to plasma membrane

C

blocking entry

43. What does penicillin do to fight infection?

A

disrupts DNA translation

B

prevents peptidoglycan synthesis

C

denatures proteins

44. What does bacitracin do to attack cells?

A

interferes with synthesis of linear strands of peptidoglycan

B

inhibits cell wall synthesis

C

inhibits proteins synthesis

45. Which of the following inhibits cell wall synthesis?

A

vancomycin

B

cephalosporins

C

bacitracin

46. Ethromyocin does what?

A

kills pathogens

B

blocks tunnel in ribosome structure and inhibits growing polypeptides

C

mutates DNA

47. What is unique about quiolones?

A

inhibits DNA gyrase and causes DNA supercoils to unravel

B

it only affects Gram neg. cells

C

it doesn't work against bacteria, only pathogens

48. Rifampin does the following...

A

inhibits cell membrane synthesis

B

binds to host cells and injects viral DNA

C

inhibits RNA synthesis

49. what is rifampin good for treating?

A

Tuberculosis

B

COVID

C

Influenza

50. Which mechanism binds to active site and blocks substrate?

A

ethromyocin

B

sulfonamides

C

isoniazid

51. True of False; Miconazole, Echinoandins, and Flucytocine are all Antifungal drugs

A

True

B

False

C

It depends in the type of fungus

52. How does Acycolvir (Antiviral drug) work?

A

eats away at cell membrane

B

incorporates fake nucleotide into DNA to block replication

C

burns & denatures proteins/enzymes

53. The anti fungal drug Flucytocine works by...

A

mutating DNA

B

stopping DNA replication

C

converting into uracil to make RNA inactive

54. Which cell structure does the anti fungal drug Echinocandin attack?

A

cell wall

B

nucleus

C

ribosomes

55. Antifungal drug Miconazole is specific to the...

A

nucleic acids

B

cell membrane

C

flagella

56. Which antiviral dug contains a two step process?

A

Telaprevir

B

Niratrelvir-ritonavir (Paxlovid)

C

Remdesvir

57. Are anti protozoan drugs affective against Malaria?

A

Yes

B

No

C

Only when used in specific concentrations

58. What does Niclosamide protect against? How does it work?

A

tapeworms; blocks ATP production

B

blood flukes; neuromuscular block

C

roundworms; neuromuscular block

59. What does Praziquantel protect against and how does it work?

A

roundworms; neuromuscular block

B

tapeworms; blocks ATP production

C

flukes; alters plasma membrane permeability

60. Which Antihelminthic drug blocks neuromuscular activity and treat roundworms?

A

Niclosamide

B

Pyrantel pamote

C

Praziquantel

61. Which reaction type adds water to BREAK bonds

A

Hydrolysis

B

Dehydration synthesis

C

Anabolic

62. What is Dehydration synthesis?

A

adding water to break bonds

B

amount of water taken away to begin a reaction

C

removal of water to form bonds

63. Define collision theory

A

random collisions occur because molecules are constantly moving

B

molecules are attracted to other molecules and "chase" them

C

binding to another molecule because of the molecular anatomy

64. Where does a substrate bind?

A

Substrate site

B

Allosteric site

C

Active site

65. Inhibitor binding occurs in the...

A

Allosteric site

B

Inhibitor site

C

Active site

66. True or false: Enzymes can be reused

A

False

B

True

C

there is not enough information to make a definitive choice

67. How do non-competitive inhibitors work?

A

binds to allosteric site-active site changes shape-substrate cannot bind

B

substance binds to active site to block inhibitor

C

substance binds to allosteric site and blocks inhibitor

68. What is the reduced form of NAD+?

A

NADP

B

NADH

C

NADPH

69. The oxidized form of FADH2 is...

A

FAD+

B

NADPH

C

NADH

70. Which is the correct pairing?

A

NAD+----NADPH

B

NADP+----NADPH

C

FAD+----FADPH

71. Which of the following is NOT a way to make ATP?

A

Glycolic phosphorylation

B

Oxidative phosphorylation

C

Photophosphorylation

72. Which form of making ATP involves passing phosphate to ADP after a series of oxidative steps?

A

substrate level phosphorylation

B

photophosphorylation

C

oxidative phosphorylation